CPC Practice Dumps Materials: Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam - CPC Study Guide - PDFDumps
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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:
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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q98-Q103):
NEW QUESTION # 98
View MR 002395
MR 002395
Operative Report
Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
Procedures:
1) Rotator cuff repair
2) Biceps Tenodesis
3) Claviculectomy
4) Coracoacromial ligament release
Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors.
Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
Answer: A
Explanation:
* 29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.
* 29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).
* 29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.
* 29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.
* All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
NEW QUESTION # 99
A patient presents to the surgical suite for a planned sterilization procedure via a bilateral excisional vasectomy.
What is the correct CPTcode and diagnosis code for the service?
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a bilateral excisional vasectomy for sterilization.
CPTCode 55250 represents a bilateral vasectomy with excision, which includes postoperative care. The code already implies a bilateral procedure, so it is not necessary to add the -50 modifier for bilateral designation.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code Z30.2 is used for encounter for sterilization and is the correct code to report for a planned sterilization procedure such as a vasectomy.
Code Z30.012 is specific to encounter for sterilization of a female patient, which does not apply in this male patient scenario.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
55250-50 (in options C and D) is unnecessary because the CPTcode 55250 inherently covers a bilateral vasectomy, and applying the -50 modifier is redundant.
Z30.012 (options B and D) is incorrect as it pertains to female sterilization procedures, not male.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, 55250 is reported without a bilateral modifier, as the procedure inherently covers both sides. Additionally, Z30.2 is the correct ICD-10-CM code for male sterilization procedures.
Thus, the correct answer based on CPTand ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 55250, Z30.2.
NEW QUESTION # 100
View MR 099407
MR 099407
Emergency Department Visit
Chief Complaint: VOMITING.
This started just prior to arrival and is still present. He has had nausea and vomiting. No diarrhea, black stools, bloody stools or abdominal pain. Pt is diabetic and has been having elevated blood sugars (320 mg/dL).
REVIEW OF SYSTEMS: Unobtainable due to patient's altered mental status.
PAST HISTORY: Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, with history of poor compliance.
Medications: See Nurses Notes.
Allergies: PCN.
SOCIAL HISTORY: Nonsmoker. No alcohol use or drug use.
ADDITIONAL NOTES: The nursing notes have been reviewed.
PHYSICAL EXAM
Appearance: Lethargic. Patient in mild distress.
Vital Signs: Have been reviewed-tachycardic.
Eyes: Pupils equal, round and reactive to light.
ENT: Dry mucous membranes present.
Neck: Normal inspection. Neck supple.
CVS: Tachycardia. Heart sounds normal. Pulses normal.
E D. Course: Insulin IV drip per protocol, at 10 units/hr.
Zofran 8 mg 01:33 Jul 13 2008 IVP.
Phenergan 25 mg IVP. 07:52. Discussed case with physician. Dr. X. Reviewed test results. Agreed upon treatment plan. Physician will see patient in hospital.
Total critical care time: 45 min.
Disposition: Admitted to Intensive Care Unit. Condition: stable.
Admit decision based on need for monitoring and IV hydration and medications.
CLINICAL IMPRESSION: Vomiting, diabetic ketoacidosis, probable diabetes insipidus.
What E/M code is reported for this encounter?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which one of the following is a commercial or private payer?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Blue Cross Blue Shield is a commercial or private payer, which means it is an insurance company that provides health insurance plans to individuals and groups. In contrast, Medicare and Medicaid are government programs, and the Veterans Health Administration (VHA) is a federal healthcare system for military veterans.
References: AMA's CPTProfessional Edition (current year), Appendix B: Payers and Reimbursement.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A patient is taken to the radiology department for a radiological cardiac catheterization. An acute MI of the left anterior descending coronary artery is found. The cardiologist performs a suction thrombectomy, followed by atherectomy and a stent to the artery. A CRNA provides MAC for this patient, who is status P5.
What code/modifier combination would you report for the services of the CRNA?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 103
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